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Forcing
or Non-forcing
A friend of mine came up with this question,
which actually comes in two parts.
You are playing matchpointed pairs
and it is Game All. You are South and hold:
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K 8 6 5 |
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Q 5 |
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K 9 7 6
3 2 |
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7 |
| West |
North |
East |
South |
| - |
1 |
Pass |
1 |
2
|
Pass |
3
|
? |
Your partnership's agreed methods are strong
no trump and four-card majors. Had partner doubled 2 ,
it would not have been for penalties, rather suggesting an above minimum
hand and being for take-out (though that could include a big balanced
handtype).
The first part of the question is whether
you should take any action in this position. The answer is by no means
straightforward. The opposition appear
to have found a fit and the theory is that if one side has a fit then
probably so does the other. You have nothing wasted in the opponents'
suit and your singleton suggests that you should compete if you
can find a sensible way of doing so. Partner can be assumed not to hold
four spades, six hearts or to be five-four in hearts and diamonds, as
he would have bid 2 ,
2
or 2
over 2
with any of those holdings, even if minimum for his opening bid. He might
also have raised to 2
with a reasonable three-card holding. The chances that he holds three
diamonds are pretty good and you would therefore like to be able to bid
3 ,
just to compete the partscore.
The question is, can you,
or will partner be misled if you bid 3 ?
Firstly, should 3
be forcing? In an uncontested auction, there are only a few specialised
situations in which a new suit at the three level is not forcing.
However, when the opposition interfere, we have to give priority to the
ability to compete effectively. Hands which would like to bid a non-forcing
3
here, have no other way of doing so than simply bidding 3
now. 3
needs to be non-forcing. A stronger hand which is genuinely two-suited
may jump to 4 ,
while a hand such as:
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K J 8 7 5 |
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A 6 |
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A K J 4 |
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8 3 |
can make a competitive double, following
the sound principle that when the opposition bid and raise a suit at a
low level doubles are best employed as for take-out.
OK, so perhaps the logic of the situation
has convinced us that 3
should be non-forcing. The next problem is that we would find preference
back to spades very unwelcome if partner is either two-two or three-three
in spades and diamonds. In some situations, partner is even allowed to
give false preference back to our first suit despite having greater
length in our second suit. Is that the case here? Though
I would be a little wary of relying on this with a strange partner, I
believe that a 3
bid in this sequence should show at least ten cards in our two suits,
and that at least five of them should be in diamonds. In other words,
we have either five-five in spades and diamonds, or six diamonds and only
four spades. The reasoning again relies on the use of competitive doubles.
Hands with five spades and four diamonds which are worth a bid at all,
will always make a competitive double. The example already given will
double then drive to game, but a lesser hand such as:
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K J 8 6 5 |
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A 6 |
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Q 8 7 5 |
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5 3 |
will also double. The difference is that
this hand will simply pass partner's next bid. And a strong five-five
hand that does not wish to risk going beyond 3NT can also start with a
double. So, to go back to the original question, I would bid 3
over 3 , competitive,
non-forcing and showing long diamonds. However, I would strongly recommend
that a regular partnership discuss this type of situation. The second
part of the problem came after a pass from our hand:
| West |
North |
East |
South |
| - |
1 |
Pass |
1 |
2
|
Pass |
3
|
Pass |
| Pass |
Dble |
Pass |
? |
Now what? The obvious answer is that we
should now bid 3 ,
and that was the answer my friend was hoping I would give. Alas, the obvious
answer is not always the correct one.
I stated earlier that most low-level doubles
should be for take-out when the opposition have found a fit, yet there
is something decidedly odd about the current auction. Partner had the
opportunity to make a take-out double of 2
yet passed. How can he possibly have a hand that did not want to compete
at the two level, yet, when the opposition bid on and we do no, suddenly
justifies competing to the three level? Any hand with a second suit would
have just bid it over 2 ;
any hand with spade support would have shown it over 2 ;
any hand with extra values and suitable to compete for that reason could
have doubled 2
for take-out. Strange though it may seem, partner's double of 3
should be for penalties. The only good hand that would have passed
over 2
is one including club length - remember that he did not have a penalty
double available to him. His pass then double sequence suggests a hand
such as:
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J 5 |
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A K 8 5 2 |
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A 3 |
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Q J 9 7 |
or perhaps even stronger. After our failure
to support hearts, he has good chances of holding five tricks in his own
hand and anything we can add to the defence will be a pleasant bonus -
and we did respond, after all. Try as you might, given the agreed methods,
you will not come up with a hand which would bid this way for take-out.
If you have a question for Brian, please
contact anna@msoworld.com
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